Most historians consider Xinjiang to be a part of the Chinese Empire, albeit a frontier region after the invasion in 1759. How come it is a listed as a separate issuer during the Qing Dynasty?
It makes sense prior to this for it to be listed separately and also during revolts, or after the Qing dynasty collapsed as it was mostly autonomous during the Republic period and the early stages of the PRC before it was invaded again. But during the Qing dynasty it was definitely a part of the Chinese empire. So why list separately specifically during the period of the Qing Dynasty?